GATE AE 2023 Q34
NAT • 1M
Airplane A and Airplane B are cruising at altitudes of 2 km and 4 km, respectively. The free stream density and static pressure at altitude 2 km are 1.01 kg/m3 and 79.50 kPa, respectively, and at altitude 4 km, they are 0.82 kg/m3 and 61.70 kPa, respectively. The differential pressure reading from the pitot-static tubes is 3 kPa for both the airplanes. Assuming incompressible flow, the ratio of cruise speeds of Airplane A to Airplane B is ______. (round off to two decimal places)
GATE AE 2020 Q54
NAT • 2M
An airplane of mass 4000 kg and wing reference area 25 m? flying at sea level has a maximum lift coefficient of 1.65. Assume density of air as 1.225 kg/m' and acceleration due to gravity as 9.8 m/s*. Using a factor of safety of 1.25 to account for additional unsteady lift during a sudden pull-up, the speed at which the airplane reaches a load factor of 3.2 is m/s (round off to two decimal places). A Pitot tube mounted on the wing tip of an airplane flying at an altitude of 3 km measures a pressure of 0.72 bar, and the outside air temperature is 268.66 K. Take the sea level conditions as, pressure = 1.01 bar, temperature = 288.16 K, and density = 1.225 kg/m'. The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s and the gas constant is 287 J/(kg K). Assuming standard atmosphere, the equivalent airspeed for this airplane is _ _ m/s (round off to two decimal place). Copyright: GATE 2020, IT Delhi
GATE AE 2018 Q55
NAT • 2M
An aircraft wind tunnel model, having a pitch axis mass moment of inertia (Iyy) of 0.014 kg-m^2, is mounted in such a manner that it has pure pitching motion about its centre of gravity, where it is supported through a frictionless hinge. If the pitching moment (M) derivative with respect to angle of attack ($\alpha$), denoted by 'M $\alpha$', is -0.504 N-m/rad and the pitching moment (M) derivative with respect to pitch rate (q), denoted by 'Mq', is -0.0336 N-m/(rad/s), the damping ratio of the resulting motion due to an initial disturbance in pitch angle is approximately _________ (accurate to three decimal places). END OF THE QUESTION PAPER Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks 1 MCQ GA D 1 2 MCQ GA A 1 3 MCQ GA B 1 4 MCQ GA A 1 5 MCQ GA C 1 6 MCQ GA C 2 7 MCQ GA C 2 8 MCQ GA Marks to All 2 9 MCQ GA D 2 10 MCQ GA B 2 1 MCQ AE C 1 2 MCQ AE B 1 3 MCQ AE B 1 4 MCQ AE C 1 5 MCQ AE B 1 6 MCQ AE C 1 7 MCQ AE A 1 8 MCQ AE C 1 9 MCQ AE B 1 10 MCQ AE C 1 11 MCQ AE B 1 12 MCQ AE A 1 13 MCQ AE B 1 Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks 14 MCQ AE B 1 15 MCQ AE B 1 16 MCQ AE B 1 17 MCQ AE A 1 18 MCQ AE C 1 19 MCQ AE B 1 20 NAT AE 0.0 to 0.0 1 21 NAT AE 1185.00 to 1186.50 1 22 NAT AE 1.75 to 1.95 1 23 NAT AE 2.0 to 2.0 1 24 NAT AE 0.98 to 0.98 1 25 NAT AE 0.50 to 0.50 1 26 MCQ AE B 2 27 MCQ AE C 2 28 MCQ AE C 2 29 MCQ AE D 2 30 MCQ AE C 2 31 MCQ AE D 2 32 MCQ AE B 2 33 MCQ AE B 2 34 MCQ AE B 2 35 MCQ AE C 2 36 NAT AE 6.25 to 6.35 2 Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks 37 NAT AE 0.68 to 0.73 2 38 NAT AE 0.85 to 0.88 2 39 NAT AE 9.80 to 9.81 2 40 NAT AE 62.00 to 63.50 2 41 NAT AE ‐0.81 to ‐0.79 2 42 NAT AE 209.00 to 211.00 2 43 NAT AE 18000 to 19440 2 44 NAT AE 7.80 to 7.80 (or) 7800 to 7802 2 45 NAT AE 3.30 to 3.40 2 46 NAT AE 1.90 to 2.20 2 47 NAT AE 47.0 to 55.0 2 48 NAT AE 18.80 to 18.90 2 49 NAT AE ‐2.50 to ‐2.20 2 50 NAT AE 3.10 to 3.20 2 51 NAT AE 12.0 to 12.0 2 52 NAT AE ‐6.0 to ‐6.0 2 53 NAT AE 215.0 to 216.5 2 54 NAT AE 222.0 to 225.0 2 55 NAT AE 0.195 to 0.205 2